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Antiphospholipid syndrome — RCPSC IM MCQ

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HardHematologyAntiphospholipid syndromeRCPSC IM

A 39-year-old woman has an unprovoked proximal DVT and two previous early miscarriages. Lupus anticoagulant is positive on two occasions 14 weeks apart, and anticardiolipin IgG is high titre. She has no active cancer and normal renal function. What is the most appropriate management?

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Correct answer: A — Long-term warfarin anticoagulation with target INR 2.0-3.0

Definite antiphospholipid syndrome with venous thrombosis usually requires long-term vitamin K antagonist anticoagulation; DOACs are avoided in high-risk APS.

Reference: Thrombosis Canada antiphospholipid syndrome guidance