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Ovarian torsion — ABEM Board MCQ

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ModerateOB/GYN emergenciesOvarian torsionABEM Board

A 24-year-old woman presents as triage level 2 with sudden severe unilateral pelvic pain and vomiting. Pregnancy test is negative. Pelvic exam shows right adnexal tenderness, and Doppler ultrasound is equivocal with an enlarged ovary. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

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Correct answer: E — Urgent gynecology consultation for suspected ovarian torsion

Ovarian torsion remains a clinical diagnosis; Doppler flow does not exclude torsion because dual ovarian blood supply may persist.

Reference: ACOG adnexal torsion guidance; ABEM EM Model