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Lupus anticoagulant — SCE Rheumatology MCQ

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HardConnective tissue diseasesLupus anticoagulantSCE Rheumatology

A 29-year-old woman with malar rash and inflammatory arthritis has ANA 1:1280, anti-Sm positive and anti-dsDNA positive. Her APTT is prolonged but corrects incompletely on mixing; she has no bleeding history. What is the most appropriate interpretation?

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Correct answer: B — Lupus anticoagulant is suggested and thrombosis risk should be assessed

Lupus anticoagulant can prolong phospholipid-dependent clotting assays while being associated with thrombosis rather than bleeding. Mixing studies that fail to correct fully support an inhibitor pattern. The result should prompt formal antiphospholipid antibody testing and clinical risk assessment.

Reference: EULAR APS recommendations; BSR SLE guideline