A 40-year-old man arrives as ESI 1 after a stab wound below the left nipple. He is pulseless on arrival after witnessed loss of pulses in the

Question

A 40-year-old man arrives as ESI 1 after a stab wound below the left nipple. He is pulseless on arrival after witnessed loss of pulses in the ambulance 5 minutes earlier. Ultrasound shows pericardial fluid. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial action?

Accepted Answer

Perform resuscitative thoracotomy

Answer

Start thrombolytic therapy

Answer

Continue CPR for 30 minutes before procedures

Answer

Discharge to the morgue without intervention

Answer

Order CT chest

Penetrating traumatic cardiac arrest — ABEM Board MCQ

A 40-year-old man arrives as ESI 1 after a stab wound below the left nipple. He is pulseless on arrival after witnessed loss of pulses in the ambulance 5 minutes earlier. Ultrasound shows pericardial fluid. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial action?