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Ovarian torsion — ABEM Board MCQ

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ModerateOB/GYN emergenciesOvarian torsionABEM Board

A 17-year-old girl arrives as ESI 2 with sudden pelvic pain, nausea, and vomiting. Vitals are stable. Pregnancy test is negative; pelvic ultrasound shows an enlarged right ovary with peripheral follicles and reduced Doppler flow. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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Correct answer: C — Obtain urgent gynecologic consultation for diagnostic laparoscopy

Ovarian torsion is a time-sensitive surgical diagnosis; Doppler flow may be reduced or present and should not delay gynecologic evaluation.

Reference: ACOG Committee Opinion: Adnexal Torsion