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Pelvic fracture hemorrhage — ABEM Board MCQ

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HardTraumaPelvic fracture hemorrhageABEM Board

A 55-year-old man arrives as ESI 1 after a high-speed MVC. BP 78/44, HR 138, RR 28, SpO2 90%. He has pelvic instability, cool extremities, and a positive FAST is not seen; chest x-ray is clear. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial action?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

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Correct answer: BApply a pelvic binder and initiate balanced blood product resuscitation

Unstable pelvic fracture can cause massive retroperitoneal hemorrhage; bind the pelvis early and resuscitate with blood products.

Reference: ATLS 10th edition; EAST pelvic fracture hemorrhage guidance