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AF anticoagulation counselling — GPhC CRA MCQ

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ModerateCardiovascular TherapeuticsAF anticoagulation counsellingGPhC CRA

A 66-year-old man with newly diagnosed atrial fibrillation asks why the GP prescribed apixaban. He has hypertension and type 2 diabetes, no previous bleeding, and normal renal function. His pulse is irregular at 92bpm. What would you advise the patient?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

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Correct answer: D — apixaban reduces stroke risk because his CHA2DS2-VASc score supports anticoagulation

AF increases embolic stroke risk and anticoagulation is guided by stroke-risk assessment. This patient has risk factors including age, hypertension and diabetes, so a DOAC is appropriate unless contraindicated. Apixaban does not provide rate control or blood pressure treatment. The need for anticoagulation is not determined solely by whether the rhythm later becomes sinus.

Reference: BNF; NICE CKS: Atrial fibrillation