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Surgical menopause — SCE Endocrinology MCQ

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EasyReproductive EndocrinologySurgical menopauseSCE Endocrinology

A 45-year-old woman has vasomotor symptoms after bilateral oophorectomy. She has no uterus because of previous hysterectomy and no contraindication to oestrogen. What is the most appropriate hormone replacement approach?

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Correct answer: D — Oestrogen replacement without progestogen

After hysterectomy, oestrogen-only HRT is usually appropriate because endometrial protection is not required. Progestogen is added when the uterus is present to reduce endometrial hyperplasia risk. Surgical menopause at a younger age has bone and cardiovascular implications.

Reference: NICE NG23 Menopause; BNF