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Prolactinoma — SCE Endocrinology MCQ

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EasyPituitaryProlactinomaSCE Endocrinology

A 34-year-old woman has amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. Prolactin is 5,600 mIU/L and MRI shows a 7 mm pituitary lesion. Pregnancy test and TSH are normal. What is the most appropriate management?

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Correct answer: A — Cabergoline

A microprolactinoma is usually treated first-line with a dopamine agonist such as cabergoline. Surgery is reserved for intolerance, resistance or selected compressive presentations. Hypothyroidism and pregnancy should be excluded because they can raise prolactin.

Reference: Endocrine Society Hyperprolactinaemia Guideline; BNF