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Septic arthritis — ABEM Board MCQ

Instant feedback + full explanation. One question, done properly.

ModerateMusculoskeletal/Orthopedic emergenciesSeptic arthritisABEM Board

A 54-year-old man with diabetes arrives with a painful swollen knee. Triage acuity is ESI 3; T 101.8 F, BP 132/76 mm Hg, HR 108/min. The knee is warm with a large effusion and pain with passive range of motion. No overlying cellulitis is present. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: E — Perform arthrocentesis before antibiotics if feasible

Suspected septic arthritis requires urgent synovial fluid analysis; antibiotics should follow promptly after cultures when feasible.

Reference: IDSA septic arthritis guidance; emergency orthopedic references