skip to main content

Rotator cuff tendinopathy — SCE Rheumatology MCQ

Instant feedback + full explanation. One question, done properly.

EasyOsteoarthritis and soft tissue rheumatologyRotator cuff tendinopathySCE Rheumatology

A 52-year-old woman has lateral shoulder pain worse on overhead activity. Examination shows painful arc and resisted abduction pain are present. Investigations show passive range of movement is preserved. The diagnosis is established and symptoms remain clinically important despite initial supportive measures. There is no contraindication to disease-modifying or anti-inflammatory escalation. What is the most appropriate management?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: E — Physiotherapy-led rehabilitation

Physiotherapy-led rehabilitation is the best answer because physiotherapy-led rehabilitation is the most appropriate next step for rotator cuff tendinopathy in this clinical setting. Oral prednisolone is a plausible distractor, but it does not account for the key discriminator in the stem. Bisphosphonate therapy and Topical NSAID therapy would be more appropriate in a different clinical pattern or at another point in the pathway, while Urgent antibiotics is suboptimal for this presentation. Clinical pearl: rheumatology management is generally treat-to-target, but infection risk, pregnancy plans and shared-care monitoring often determine the safest answer.

Reference: NICE NG226; NICE CKS musculoskeletal topics