Polymyositis — SCE Rheumatology MCQ

Instant feedback + full explanation. One question, done properly.

ModerateConnective tissue diseasesPolymyositisSCE Rheumatology

A 52-year-old man has progressive proximal muscle weakness without rash. Examination shows hip flexion and shoulder abduction are weak. Investigations show CK is markedly raised and EMG is myopathic. The admitting team asks which diagnosis best explains the whole presentation. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: B — Polymyositis

Polymyositis is the best answer because the pattern described is most consistent with Polymyositis, including the distribution of symptoms and the targeted investigation results. Enthesitis-related arthritis is a plausible distractor, but it does not account for the key discriminator in the stem. Psoriatic arthritis and Septic arthritis would be more appropriate in a different clinical pattern or at another point in the pathway, while Systemic sclerosis is suboptimal for this presentation. Clinical pearl: in SCE-style questions, the decisive clue is usually the pattern across joints, extra-articular features and targeted immunology rather than a single antibody result.

Reference: BSR SLE guideline; EULAR SLE and systemic sclerosis recommendations; BNF