Rotator cuff tendinopathy — SCE Rheumatology MCQ

Instant feedback + full explanation. One question, done properly.

EasyOsteoarthritis and soft tissue rheumatologyRotator cuff tendinopathySCE Rheumatology

A 58-year-old man has lateral shoulder pain worse on overhead activity. Examination shows painful arc and resisted abduction pain are present. Investigations show passive range of movement is preserved. The admitting team asks which diagnosis best explains the whole presentation. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: B — Rotator cuff tendinopathy

Rotator cuff tendinopathy is the best answer because the pattern described is most consistent with Rotator cuff tendinopathy, including the distribution of symptoms and the targeted investigation results. Greater trochanteric pain syndrome is a plausible distractor, but it does not account for the key discriminator in the stem. ANCA-associated vasculitis and IgG4-related disease would be more appropriate in a different clinical pattern or at another point in the pathway, while Acute CPP crystal arthritis is suboptimal for this presentation. Clinical pearl: in SCE-style questions, the decisive clue is usually the pattern across joints, extra-articular features and targeted immunology rather than a single antibody result.

Reference: NICE NG226; NICE CKS musculoskeletal topics