skip to main content

Osteoarthritis — SCE Rheumatology MCQ

Instant feedback + full explanation. One question, done properly.

EasyOsteoarthritis and soft tissue rheumatologyOsteoarthritisSCE Rheumatology

A 33-year-old man has activity-related knee pain and brief stiffness after rest. Examination shows there is crepitus and bony enlargement without synovitis. Investigations show radiographs show joint-space narrowing and osteophytes. The diagnosis is established and symptoms remain clinically important despite initial supportive measures. There is no contraindication to disease-modifying or anti-inflammatory escalation. What is the most appropriate management?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: D — Topical NSAID therapy

Topical NSAID therapy is the best answer because topical nsaid therapy is the most appropriate next step for osteoarthritis in this clinical setting. Therapeutic exercise is a plausible distractor, but it does not account for the key discriminator in the stem. Increase NSAID therapy and Surgical opinion would be more appropriate in a different clinical pattern or at another point in the pathway, while Oral prednisolone is suboptimal for this presentation. Clinical pearl: rheumatology management is generally treat-to-target, but infection risk, pregnancy plans and shared-care monitoring often determine the safest answer.

Reference: NICE NG226; NICE CKS musculoskeletal topics