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DXA interpretation — SCE Rheumatology MCQ

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HardMusculoskeletal InvestigationsDXA interpretationSCE Rheumatology

A 67-year-old has no prior fracture but DXA shows a femoral-neck T-score of −3.6. Secondary causes have been assessed. What risk-pathway decision follows NOGG?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

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Correct answer: CRefer to an osteoporosis specialist as very high risk

Explanation lettering: C = shown as A · D = shown as C · E = shown as D · A = shown as E

D is correct. NOGG lists BMD T-score at or below −3.5 as a very-high-risk indicator warranting specialist assessment, where parenteral or first-line anabolic treatment may be appropriate. A previous fracture is not required. Delayed reassessment, supplements alone and a drug holiday leave severe skeletal risk untreated.

Reference: NOGG intervention thresholds and strategy. https://www.nogg.org.uk/full-guideline/section-4-intervention-thresholds-and-strategy