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Reactive arthritis — SCE Rheumatology MCQ

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HardSpondyloarthropathiesReactive arthritisSCE Rheumatology

A 24-year-old man develops asymmetric knee and ankle oligoarthritis, conjunctivitis and plantar keratoderma 3 weeks after urethral discharge. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

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Correct answer: EReactive arthritis

Reactive arthritis is the single best answer because sterile oligoarthritis after genitourinary infection suggests reactive arthritis. The stem is testing diagnostic synthesis, not isolated recall, so the relevant clinical pattern and risk context determine the answer. Mechanical back pain is less suitable because it fits a different clinical pattern or a different treatment threshold; Rheumatoid arthritis, Methotrexate for isolated axial symptoms and Rituximab do not address the key discriminator in this vignette. Clinical pearl: in SCE-style rheumatology questions, autoantibodies, imaging and synovial fluid findings should be interpreted with the whole phenotype.

Reference: NICE NG65; BSR psoriatic arthritis and axial spondyloarthritis guidance