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Anti-TNF demyelination — SCE Rheumatology MCQ

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ModerateRheumatological PharmacologyAnti-TNF demyelinationSCE Rheumatology

A 48-year-old man on infliximab develops optic neuritis, paraesthesia and MRI lesions compatible with demyelination. What is the most appropriate management?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

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Correct answer: DStop anti-TNF therapy and seek neurology advice

Stop anti-TNF therapy and seek neurology advice is the single best answer because demyelination is a recognised anti-TNF safety concern. The stem is testing management choice, not isolated recall, so the relevant clinical pattern and risk context determine the answer. Start methotrexate with folic acid and monitoring is less suitable because it fits a different clinical pattern or a different treatment threshold; Begin high-dose glucocorticoids immediately, Urgent joint aspiration and culture and Use NSAID therapy and physiotherapy do not address the key discriminator in this vignette. Clinical pearl: in SCE-style rheumatology questions, autoantibodies, imaging and synovial fluid findings should be interpreted with the whole phenotype.

Reference: https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/conditions-and-diseases/musculoskeletal-conditions