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Reactive arthritis — SCE Rheumatology MCQ

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ModerateSpondyloarthropathiesReactive arthritisSCE Rheumatology

A 27-year-old man has reactive arthritis after confirmed chlamydial urethritis. Examination shows one knee and one ankle are swollen. Investigations show synovial fluid is sterile and NAAT is positive for chlamydia. What is the most appropriate management?

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Correct answer: D — Treat chlamydia and control joint inflammation

Reactive arthritis management includes treating the triggering chlamydial infection and controlling arthritis with NSAIDs or local steroid when infection is excluded. Methotrexate is reserved for persistent or severe disease rather than the first step in a typical acute episode. Partner notification and sexual health management are part of the care pathway.

Reference: https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/conditions-and-diseases/musculoskeletal-conditions