skip to main content

Edoxaban dose reduction — GPhC CRA MCQ

Instant feedback + full explanation. One question, done properly.

HardCardiovascular TherapeuticsEdoxaban dose reductionGPhC CRA

A patient with previous unprovoked VTE has triple-positive antiphospholipid syndrome and is prescribed edoxaban for long-term secondary prevention. Which anticoagulant strategy should be discussed?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: B — Use of warfarin rather than a direct oral anticoagulant

DOACs are not recommended in antiphospholipid syndrome, particularly in high-risk triple-positive disease, because recurrent thrombosis was increased compared with warfarin. The prescription should be clarified and a vitamin-K antagonist strategy considered by the treating team.

Reference: MHRA: DOACs not recommended in antiphospholipid syndrome: https://www.gov.uk/drug-safety-update/direct-acting-oral-anticoagulants-doacs-increased-risk-of-recurrent-thrombotic-events-in-patients-with-antiphospholipid-syndrome