Turner Hypoplasia — MFDS Part 1 MCQ

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ModerateOral PathologyTurner HypoplasiaMFDS Part 1

A 10-year-old child has a sharply localised area of pitted, reduced-thickness enamel affecting one permanent mandibular premolar. All other erupted teeth have normal enamel. Which antecedent most specifically explains this developmental defect?

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Correct answer: B — Infection or trauma involving its primary tooth predecessor

The correct answer is B. Turner hypoplasia is a localised developmental enamel defect in a permanent tooth caused by damage to its developing tooth germ from infection or trauma involving the primary predecessor. Premolars may be affected following periapical infection of primary molars, while permanent incisors are commonly affected after trauma to primary incisors. The isolated distribution and reduced enamel thickness distinguish it from fluorosis, systemic illness and vitamin D deficiency, which generally affect multiple teeth forming at the relevant time. An inherited enamel defect such as amelogenesis imperfecta usually produces a generalised and often familial pattern rather than a solitary affected tooth.

Reference: Caeiro-Villasenín L et al. Developmental Dental Defects in Permanent Teeth Resulting from Trauma in Primary Dentition: A Systematic Review. International Journal of Environmental Research and Public Health. 2022;19:754. https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/35055575/