skip to main content

Ameloblastoma — MFDS Part 1 MCQ

Instant feedback + full explanation. One question, done properly.

ModerateOral PathologyAmeloblastomaMFDS Part 1

A 45-year-old patient presents with a painless, slowly enlarging swelling of the posterior mandible. The adjacent teeth are vital, and there is no associated unerupted tooth. An orthopantomogram shows a well-defined multilocular radiolucency extending from the molar region into the ramus, with curved internal septa, marked buccolingual expansion and resorption of adjacent roots. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: EAmeloblastoma

The most likely diagnosis is **ameloblastoma**. Conventional ameloblastoma typically presents in adults as a painless, slowly enlarging posterior mandibular lesion. A well-defined multilocular radiolucency with internal septa, pronounced cortical expansion and root resorption is characteristic of this benign but locally aggressive odontogenic tumour. An odontogenic keratocyst can occur in the posterior mandible but usually grows anteroposteriorly with less expansion and root resorption. A dentigerous cyst must be attached to the crown of an unerupted tooth. A radicular cyst is centred at the apex of a non-vital tooth and is usually unilocular. Central giant cell granuloma more commonly affects the anterior mandible, often crossing the midline, particularly in younger patients. Definitive diagnosis nevertheless requires histopathological examination.

Reference: Figueiredo NR et al. Ameloblastoma: A clinicoradiographic and histopathologic correlation of 11 cases seen in Goa during 2008-2012. Contemporary Clinical Dentistry. 2014;5(2):160-165. https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/24963238/