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Sebaceous Hyperplasia vs BCC — SCE Dermatology MCQ

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HardSkin CancerSebaceous Hyperplasia vs BCCSCE Dermatology

A 58-year-old with a sebaceous adenoma has immunohistochemistry showing loss of MSH2 and MSH6 with retained MLH1 and PMS2. Which next step is most appropriate?

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Correct answer: C — Refer for mismatch-repair genetic assessment

Loss of MSH2 and MSH6 in a sebaceous neoplasm raises Muir–Torre syndrome, a phenotypic variant of Lynch syndrome, and warrants genetics-led mismatch-repair assessment. The other genes are associated with different cutaneous tumour-predisposition syndromes.

Reference: https://academic.oup.com/bjd/pages/bad-guidelines