skip to main content

Schwannoma — SCE Dermatology MCQ

Instant feedback + full explanation. One question, done properly.

HardSkin CancerSchwannomaSCE Dermatology

A 32-year-old has three pathologically confirmed non-intradermal schwannomas and no bilateral vestibular schwannoma on MRI. There is no prior radiotherapy. What is the best next etiological step?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: A — Refer for genetics evaluation including NF2, SMARCB1 and LZTR1-related schwannomatosis

Explanation lettering: D = shown as A · E = shown as B · B = shown as D · A = shown as E

D is correct. Multiple schwannomas in a young adult raise a schwannomatosis spectrum disorder. Modern classification recognizes NF2-related, SMARCB1-related and LZTR1-related schwannomatosis, and mosaic disease can make blood testing and phenotype interpretation complex. Absence of bilateral vestibular schwannomas does not establish sporadic disease or exclude mosaic NF2-related disease. NF1 is characterized mainly by neurofibromas and other diagnostic features, while RET causes MEN2 rather than schwannomatosis. Genetics referral guides testing strategy, tumour surveillance and counselling of relatives.

Reference: GeneReviews: schwannomatosis: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK487394/