skip to main content

Behcet VTE Management — SCE Rheumatology MCQ

Instant feedback + full explanation. One question, done properly.

HardVasculitisBehcet VTE ManagementSCE Rheumatology

A 55-year-old man with established Behçets disease develops an acute symptomatic femoropopliteal deep-vein thrombosis. There is no separate indication for anticoagulation. Which management strategy best reflects current UK specialty guidance for Behçets-associated deep-vein thrombosis?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: E — Systemic anti-inflammatory or immunosuppressive treatment, without routine adjunctive anticoagulation

Explanation lettering: D = shown as A · E = shown as B · B = shown as C · A = shown as D · C = shown as E

Behçets-associated venous thrombosis is primarily an inflammatory vascular manifestation, so treatment should target active vessel-wall inflammation. Current BAD–BSR living guidance supports systemic anti-inflammatory or immunosuppressive treatment for Behçets-associated DVT and does not recommend routine addition of anticoagulation. The potential benefit of anticoagulation is uncertain, whereas bleeding can be catastrophic when arterial disease, particularly pulmonary arterial aneurysm, coexists. Anticoagulation alone (B or E) does not treat the underlying inflammatory process. Observation alone (A) is inadequate for symptomatic DVT. Thrombolysis (D) is not routine treatment for uncomplicated lower-limb DVT in Behçets and does not replace immunosuppression.

Reference: Murphy R, Moots RJ, Brogan P, et al. British Association of Dermatologists and British Society for Rheumatology living guideline for managing people with Behçets 2025. Rheumatology (Oxford). 2026;65(2):keaf521. https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/41042599/