A 40-year-old man presents with an acutely swollen, painful left knee, unable to weight-bear. He has fever of 38.9°C. Examination shows a hot, tender ...

Question

A 40-year-old man presents with an acutely swollen, painful left knee, unable to weight-bear. He has fever of 38.9°C. Examination shows a hot, tender knee with marked effusion and reduced range of movement. What is the most appropriate next step?

Accepted Answer

Arrange urgent joint aspiration and start IV antibiotics

Answer

Start oral NSAIDs and review in 48 hours

Answer

Order MRI of the knee and await the result

Answer

Refer to physiotherapy

Answer

Give intra-articular steroid injection in clinic

uk-plab-1 MCQ (SBA): Septic arthritis

A 40-year-old man presents with an acutely swollen, painful left knee, unable to weight-bear. He has fever of 38.9°C. Examination shows a hot, tender knee with marked effusion and reduced range of movement. What is the most appropriate next step?