A 42-year-old man has moderate depression with marked functional impairment and no previous treatment. There is no immediate suicide risk. What is the...

Question

A 42-year-old man has moderate depression with marked functional impairment and no previous treatment. There is no immediate suicide risk. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?

Accepted Answer

Combined antidepressant (e.g. SSRI) and psychological therapy

Answer

Psychological therapy alone is sufficient; antidepressants are contraindicated

Answer

Long-term benzodiazepines alone

Answer

Electroconvulsive therapy as first-line

Answer

No treatment; symptoms will resolve spontaneously

uk-plab-1 MCQ (SBA): Moderate depressive episode

A 42-year-old man has moderate depression with marked functional impairment and no previous treatment. There is no immediate suicide risk. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?