A 54-year-old man presents with an erythematous, warm, tender area on his left lower leg with indistinct borders. He is apyrexial, has no systemic fea...

Question

A 54-year-old man presents with an erythematous, warm, tender area on his left lower leg with indistinct borders. He is apyrexial, has no systemic features and no comorbidities. What is the most appropriate management?

Accepted Answer

Oral Flucloxacillin

Answer

Intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics and admission

Answer

Topical steroid cream

Answer

No treatment is needed

Answer

Oral antiviral therapy

uk-plab-1 MCQ (SBA): Cellulitis

A 54-year-old man presents with an erythematous, warm, tender area on his left lower leg with indistinct borders. He is apyrexial, has no systemic features and no comorbidities. What is the most appropriate management?