A 63-year-old woman presents with exertional dyspnoea and ankle swelling. Echocardiography reveals a left ventricular ejection fraction of 30% with gl...

Question

A 63-year-old woman presents with exertional dyspnoea and ankle swelling. Echocardiography reveals a left ventricular ejection fraction of 30% with global hypokinesis. She has controlled hypertension and type 2 diabetes. According to contemporary heart failure management principles in Australia, which pharmacological combination is the most appropriate foundational therapy (assuming no contraindications)?

Accepted Answer

ACE inhibitor, beta blocker, mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist, and SGLT2 inhibitor

Answer

Loop diuretic alone

Answer

ACE inhibitor and loop diuretic only

Answer

Beta blocker and non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker

Answer

Thiazide diuretic and long-acting nitrate

au-amc MCQ (SBA): Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction