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Question preview · MRCP Part 1

A 45-year-old man with no prior history presents with palpitations. Examination reveals an irregularly irregular pulse and an ECG confirms atrial fibrillation. He has no structural heart disease and a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 0. What is the most appropriate initial management strategy?

  1. A. Immediate DC cardioversion
  2. B. Warfarin initiation
  3. C. Rate control with a beta-blocker
  4. D. Rhythm control with class IC antiarrhythmic
  5. E. Start a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC)

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  3. Keep your question and explanation beside the conversation.
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