skip to main content

Opioid use disorder — CCFP MCQ

Instant feedback + full explanation. One question, done properly.

HardMental healthOpioid use disorderCCFP

A 33-year-old uses non-prescribed fentanyl daily and has survived two overdoses. He is in mild withdrawal, requests treatment, has stable housing and is not intoxicated. What is the most appropriate next step?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: E — Offer buprenorphine-naloxone or methadone with take-home naloxone

Explanation lettering: E = shown as B · B = shown as E

B is correct. Opioid agonist treatment with buprenorphine-naloxone or methadone reduces opioid-related morbidity and mortality; overdose prevention, including naloxone, should accompany treatment. C creates a high-risk treatment barrier. D is not evidence-based opioid-use-disorder treatment. E delays care without improving safety. A can precipitate severe withdrawal in someone currently dependent on opioids. Induction, dosing and pharmacy support should be individualized, including a low-dose initiation strategy if clinically indicated.

Reference: CMAJ: Management of opioid use disorder—2024 update to the national clinical practice guideline: https://www.cmaj.ca/content/196/38/E1280