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Premature ovarian insufficiency — RACGP Fellowship MCQ

Instant feedback + full explanation. One question, done properly.

HardWomen's health and O&GPremature ovarian insufficiencyRACGP Fellowship

A 36-year-old with confirmed premature ovarian insufficiency has an intact uterus, no thrombosis or hormone-sensitive cancer history, and does not currently want pregnancy. Which long-term plan is most appropriate?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: D — Provide combined MHT until about age 50 and discuss separate contraception

Explanation lettering: B = shown as A · D = shown as B · E = shown as C · A = shown as D · C = shown as E

A is correct. In premature ovarian insufficiency, menopausal hormone therapy is generally continued until the natural menopause age unless contraindicated; an intact uterus requires progestogen protection, and MHT is not contraceptive. B incorrectly relies on MHT for contraception. C exposes an intact endometrium to unopposed oestrogen. D stops replacement too early and neglects long-term bone and cardiovascular consequences. E is not an adequate oestrogen-replacement regimen.

Reference: RACGP, Premature ovarian insufficiency in general practice: https://www.racgp.org.au/afp/2017/june/premature-ovarian-insufficiency-in-general-practic