skip to main content

Terminal complement deficiency — MRCPCH TAS MCQ

Instant feedback + full explanation. One question, done properly.

HardImmunologyTerminal complement deficiencyMRCPCH TAS

A 12-year-old has a second episode of meningococcal sepsis. Immunoglobulins, lymphocyte subsets and neutrophil oxidative burst are normal. Which immune defect is most likely?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: DTerminal complement pathway deficiency

Recurrent invasive Neisseria infection with otherwise normal immune testing suggests terminal complement deficiency involving C5-C9. BTK mutation would cause recurrent sinopulmonary infections with low immunoglobulins. The pearl is that complement testing is important after recurrent meningococcal disease.

Reference: Nelson Textbook of Pediatrics; RCPCH Theory examination syllabi; UKHSA Green Book