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Menopause — DRCOG MCQ

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HardGynaecologyMenopauseDRCOG

A 51-year-old has hot flushes and has had no period for 9 months. She is otherwise well, has no hormonal contraception and has no premature-ovarian-insufficiency risk factors. What is the most appropriate approach?

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Correct answer: E — Discuss menopausal symptoms, then diagnose perimenopause clinically

The best answer is “Discuss menopausal symptoms, then diagnose perimenopause clinically”. For people aged 45 or over with typical vasomotor symptoms and menstrual change, menopause transition is diagnosed clinically; routine FSH testing is not needed. Management should be individualised and include information on lifestyle, non-hormonal options and HRT where appropriate. Amenorrhoea requires a different evaluation if pregnancy or other features make it relevant.

Reference: NICE NG23: Menopause identification and management: https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/ng23/chapter/Recommendations