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Neuroleptic malignant syndrome — ABEM Board MCQ

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HardPsychiatric emergenciesNeuroleptic malignant syndromeABEM Board

A 36-year-old man with schizophrenia presents as triage level 2 with fever, lead-pipe rigidity, confusion, CK 18,000 U/L, and autonomic instability after his haloperidol dose was increased. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

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Correct answer: C — Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

NMS is associated with dopamine antagonists and features rigidity, hyperthermia, altered mental status, autonomic instability, and rhabdomyolysis.

Reference: ACEP psychiatric emergency guidance; ABEM EM Model