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Septic arthritis — RCPSC EM MCQ

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ModerateMusculoskeletalSeptic arthritisRCPSC EM

A 72-year-old woman presents CTAS 3 with acute atraumatic knee pain and fever. Temperature is 38.4°C, HR is 108, the knee is hot with a large effusion, and she cannot bear weight. She takes apixaban for atrial fibrillation. What is the most appropriate next step?

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Correct answer: APerform urgent arthrocentesis for synovial fluid analysis before antibiotics if feasible

Septic arthritis must be excluded in a febrile patient with an acutely swollen joint. Arthrocentesis is diagnostic and should not be deferred solely because of DOAC use.

Reference: Royal College Emergency Medicine exam format and training experiences