skip to main content

Central retinal artery occlusion — PARA MCQ

Instant feedback + full explanation. One question, done properly.

HardDermatology/ENT/Ophthalmology - OphthalmologyCentral retinal artery occlusionPARA

A 62-year-old man has sudden painless loss of vision in one eye described as a curtain descending. Fundoscopy shows a pale retina with a cherry-red spot. What is the most likely cause?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: BRetinal arterial occlusion from embolism

Painless monocular visual loss with a pale retina and cherry-red spot suggests central retinal artery occlusion, often embolic.

Reference: NICE CKS: Visual loss; RCOphth retinal vascular occlusion guidance