skip to main content

Premenstrual syndrome — DRCOG MCQ

Instant feedback + full explanation. One question, done properly.

ModerateGynaecologyPremenstrual syndromeDRCOG

A 34-year-old woman has cyclical mood swings, irritability and breast tenderness in the luteal phase. Symptoms resolve within a few days of menstruation and are affecting work. Pregnancy test is negative and examination is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: C — Premenstrual syndrome

The cyclical luteal timing with symptom resolution after menstruation is typical of premenstrual syndrome. Bipolar disorder is not usually predictably confined to the luteal phase with complete cyclical remission. The pearl is that prospective symptom diaries help confirm the diagnosis and severity.

Reference: RCOG Green-top Guideline No. 48