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Type 2 diabetes with ASCVD — ABFM Board MCQ

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ModerateEndocrine/MetabolicType 2 diabetes with ASCVDABFM Board

A 61-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes has an A1c of 8.4% despite metformin. She has established coronary artery disease and an estimated GFR of 72 mL/min/1.73 m². Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

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Correct answer: CAdd a GLP-1 receptor agonist with cardiovascular benefit

In type 2 diabetes with established ASCVD, adding a GLP-1 receptor agonist or SGLT2 inhibitor with proven cardiovascular benefit is recommended independent of baseline A1c considerations. Glyburide is less favored due to hypoglycemia risk.

Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes, 2026