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Bipolar I disorder — ABFM Board MCQ

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HardMental healthBipolar I disorderABFM Board

A 42-year-old man reports 4 days of decreased need for sleep, pressured speech, grandiosity, risky spending, and irritability. His wife says this has caused major work problems. Urine drug screen is negative and TSH is normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

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Correct answer: A — Bipolar I disorder, manic episode

Mania is defined by abnormally elevated or irritable mood and increased energy with symptoms such as decreased need for sleep, pressured speech, grandiosity, and impairment. A manic episode establishes bipolar I disorder.

Reference: DSM-5-TR; APA Bipolar Disorder Guideline