skip to main content

Transient ischemic attack — ABFM Board MCQ

Instant feedback + full explanation. One question, done properly.

HardNeurologyTransient ischemic attackABFM Board

A 58-year-old man has transient right arm weakness and aphasia lasting 20 minutes. Blood pressure is 168/92 mm Hg, ECG shows sinus rhythm, and CT head shows no hemorrhage. ABCD2 score is 5. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: B — Urgent stroke evaluation and secondary prevention

High-risk transient ischemic attack requires urgent stroke evaluation, vascular imaging, risk-factor management, and antithrombotic therapy when hemorrhage is excluded. Early stroke risk is highest in the first days.

Reference: AHA/ASA Stroke Prevention Guideline