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Pelvic inflammatory disease — ABFM Board MCQ

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HardWomen's health/OB/GYNPelvic inflammatory diseaseABFM Board

A 26-year-old woman has pelvic pain, cervical motion tenderness, uterine tenderness, and mucopurulent discharge. Pregnancy test is negative and temperature is 100.8°F. NAAT later returns positive for chlamydia. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment?

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Correct answer: B — Ceftriaxone plus doxycycline plus metronidazole

Pelvic inflammatory disease is treated empirically with broad coverage for gonorrhea, chlamydia, anaerobes, and vaginal flora. Outpatient regimens include ceftriaxone plus doxycycline plus metronidazole when clinically appropriate.

Reference: CDC STI Treatment Guidelines, Pelvic Inflammatory Disease, 2021