MEN1 with gastrinoma — SCE Endocrinology MCQ
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Correct answer: D — MEN1 with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
MEN1 with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is best because acidic hypergastrinaemia with a positive secretin test confirms gastrinoma, and primary hyperparathyroidism suggests MEN1. The alternatives are less appropriate because atrophic gastritis has high gastric pH; MEN2A centres on RET-driven MTC and phaeochromocytoma; IBS does not raise gastrin; VIPoma causes watery diarrhoea with hypokalaemia. The SCE teaching point is to integrate the clinical pattern, biochemistry and context rather than treating an isolated result.
Reference: MEN1 clinical practice guidance; ENETS guidance