skip to main content

Febrile neutropenia — RCPSC EM MCQ

Instant feedback + full explanation. One question, done properly.

HardInfectious disease emergenciesFebrile neutropeniaRCPSC EM

A patient on chemotherapy has temperature 39.0°C, ANC 0.1×10⁹/L, BP 88/50 mmHg and a tunneled line without exit-site inflammation. What antimicrobial plan is correct?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: CObtain cultures and start IV antipseudomonal therapy, adding vancomycin only for a defined indication

Explanation lettering: B = shown as A · D = shown as B · E = shown as C · A = shown as D · C = shown as E

E is correct: this is high-risk neutropenic sepsis and requires immediate antipseudomonal IV therapy after rapid cultures. A delays therapy and removes a line without evidence. B is inappropriate in shock. C omits Gram-negative coverage. D delays antibiotics for a non-immediate adjunct.

Reference: Emergency Care BC, Febrile Neutropenia in Adults: https://emergencycarebc.ca/clinical_resource/clinical-summary/febrile-neutropenia-in-adults/