skip to main content

Tubo-ovarian abscess — RCPSC EM MCQ

Instant feedback + full explanation. One question, done properly.

ModerateOB/GYN emergenciesTubo-ovarian abscessRCPSC EM

CTAS 2. A 36-year-old has fever, pelvic pain, and purulent cervical discharge. WBC is 18, pregnancy test is negative, and ultrasound shows a 6-cm complex left adnexal collection. She is vomiting and unable to tolerate oral intake. What is the most appropriate disposition?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: EAdmit for IV antibiotics and gynaecology review

Tubo-ovarian abscess, systemic symptoms, vomiting, and a sizable collection warrant admission, IV antibiotics, and gynaecology involvement.

Reference: SOGC pelvic inflammatory disease guidance