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Severe pre-eclampsia — DipIMC MCQ

Instant feedback + full explanation. One question, done properly.

ModeratePaediatric and Obstetric EmergenciesSevere pre-eclampsiaDipIMC

A woman at 35 weeks has severe headache, visual disturbance, epigastric pain and blood pressure 172/114 mmHg. She has not seized. What is the most appropriate management?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: B — Urgent transfer to obstetric-led care with pre-alert

Option B is correct because Severe hypertension with neurological and epigastric symptoms suggests severe pre-eclampsia. Option E is less appropriate because the clinical risk exceeds that destination or timeframe; option D is less appropriate because pre-alert is needed to mobilise the correct receiving team. Option C is less appropriate because watchful waiting risks deterioration or delays definitive care; option A is less appropriate because unmonitored private transport is unsafe for this risk profile. Clinical pearl: in DipIMC-style questions, the best answer is the intervention that changes outcome earliest in the pre-hospital phase.

Reference: JRCALC Guidelines; NICE Hypertension in pregnancy