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Acute aortic syndrome — DipIMC MCQ

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HardMedical EmergenciesAcute aortic syndromeDipIMC

A man has sudden tearing interscapular pain, syncope and different blood pressures between arms. ECG does not show STEMI. What is the most appropriate transport decision?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

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Correct answer: EPre-alert and transport urgently to an emergency department with vascular pathway access

Option E is correct because Acute aortic syndrome is time-critical and can mimic ACS, requiring urgent senior assessment. Option C is less appropriate because the clinical risk exceeds that destination or timeframe; option A is less appropriate because pre-alert is needed to mobilise the correct receiving team. Option D is less appropriate because watchful waiting risks deterioration or delays definitive care; option B is less appropriate because unmonitored private transport is unsafe for this risk profile. Clinical pearl: in DipIMC-style questions, the best answer is the intervention that changes outcome earliest in the pre-hospital phase.

Reference: JRCALC Guidelines