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Femoral shaft fracture — DipIMC MCQ

Instant feedback + full explanation. One question, done properly.

ModeratePre-Hospital Trauma ManagementFemoral shaft fractureDipIMC

A motorcyclist has an isolated closed mid-shaft femoral deformity, stable observations and no pelvic pain. Distal pulses are present after analgesia. What is the most appropriate management?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: B — Apply a traction splint after neurovascular assessment

Option B is correct because An isolated femoral shaft fracture with intact distal perfusion and no pelvic injury is appropriate for traction splinting. Option E is less appropriate because watchful waiting risks deterioration or delays definitive care; option D is less appropriate because the clinical risk exceeds that destination or timeframe. Option C is less appropriate because it is plausible in a different scenario but suboptimal for the features described; option A is less appropriate because analgesia is important but not sufficient as the primary intervention. Clinical pearl: in DipIMC-style questions, the best answer is the intervention that changes outcome earliest in the pre-hospital phase.

Reference: JRCALC Guidelines