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Acute coronary syndrome — DipIMC MCQ

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ModerateMedical EmergenciesAcute coronary syndromeDipIMC

A 64-year-old has central chest pressure, nausea and a nondiagnostic ECG. He has no aspirin allergy and is not actively bleeding. What is the most appropriate management?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

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Correct answer: EGive aspirin and arrange urgent cardiac assessment

Explanation lettering: C = shown as B · D = shown as C · B = shown as D

E is correct: Suspected acute coronary syndrome should receive aspirin unless contraindicated and be assessed on an appropriate cardiac pathway. A is less suitable because it does not address the discriminator in the vignette; B is less suitable because pre-alert is needed when definitive teams must prepare; C is less suitable because a detailed survey is inappropriate before correcting an immediate threat; D is less suitable because it does not address the discriminator in the vignette. The most tempting alternative is therefore suboptimal because it either delays the time-critical pre-hospital intervention or sends the patient to the wrong level of care. The key DipIMC principle is focused cABCDE decision-making with early pre-alert, triage or retrieval escalation when the scene physiology demands it.

Reference: JRCALC Guidelines; Resuscitation Council UK; NICE guidance where applicable