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Hypoglycaemic seizure — DipIMC MCQ

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HardResuscitationHypoglycaemic seizureDipIMC

A 52-year-old diabetic has a generalised seizure and capillary glucose is 1.8 mmol/L. Intravenous access is available. What is the most appropriate drug/dose?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

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Correct answer: EIntravenous glucose 10% titrated to response

Explanation lettering: E = shown as C · C = shown as D · D = shown as E

D is correct: Symptomatic hypoglycaemia with intravenous access should be corrected promptly with intravenous glucose. A is less suitable because it is a common auto-injector dose rather than the adult healthcare dose; B is less suitable because analgesia is important but does not replace the first physiological intervention; C is less suitable because rapid IV benzodiazepine bolus carries avoidable respiratory risk; E is less suitable because cardiac-arrest adrenaline dosing is inappropriate in a perfusing patient. The most tempting alternative is therefore suboptimal because it either delays the time-critical pre-hospital intervention or sends the patient to the wrong level of care. The key DipIMC principle is focused cABCDE decision-making with early pre-alert, triage or retrieval escalation when the scene physiology demands it.

Reference: Resuscitation Council UK Guidelines 2025; JRCALC Guidelines