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STEMI — DipIMC MCQ

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HardMedical EmergenciesSTEMIDipIMC

A 60-year-old has crushing chest pain radiating to the left arm. The pre-hospital ECG shows anterior ST elevation and he is haemodynamically stable. What is the most appropriate immediate action?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

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Correct answer: APre-alert and transport for primary PCI pathway

Explanation lettering: D = shown as A · A = shown as B · E = shown as C · B = shown as D · C = shown as E

D is correct: ST-elevation myocardial infarction needs rapid reperfusion pathway activation rather than prolonged scene treatment. A is less suitable because analgesia is important but does not replace the first physiological intervention; B is less suitable because it creates avoidable delay in a time-critical presentation; C is less suitable because a detailed survey is inappropriate before correcting an immediate threat; E is less suitable because it moves the patient before the decisive threat or destination issue is addressed. The most tempting alternative is therefore suboptimal because it either delays the time-critical pre-hospital intervention or sends the patient to the wrong level of care. The key DipIMC principle is focused cABCDE decision-making with early pre-alert, triage or retrieval escalation when the scene physiology demands it.

Reference: JRCALC Guidelines; Resuscitation Council UK; NICE guidance where applicable